A violent altercation between two passengers aboard a moving Mumbai local train ended with one of them falling onto the railway tracks, narrowly escaping a potentially serious accident. The incident took place on Friday night at around 10.30 pm aboard a Churchgate-Virar fast local train, between Grant Road and Mumbai Central stations.

The incident came to light after a video of the fight surfaced on social media, showing passengers physically assaulting each other inside the moving train.

According to the available information, the dispute began over standing near the train's doorway. What initially started as a verbal argument quickly escalated into a physical fight, with both passengers exchanging blows near the entrance of the compartment.

The situation took a dangerous turn as the train approached Mumbai Central station. While the train was passing through the station, one of the passengers fell from the moving train onto the railway tracks.

Fortunately, the train was travelling at a considerably low speed at the time, allowing the passenger to survive the fall and preventing a major accident.

The video of the incident is now circulating widely on social media, drawing attention to the risks posed by physical altercations inside moving local trains. The incident has once again raised concerns over passenger safety in Mumbai's suburban railway network, particularly when disputes escalate near train doors.

Leader of the Opposition in the Lok Sabha Rahul Gandhi has accused major oil marketing companies of selling petrol with ethanol content exceeding the prescribed 20 per cent limit. Citing laboratory test results from seven districts in Karnataka, Gandhi alleged that several fuel samples contained significantly higher ethanol concentrations than permitted under the E20 blending programme.

In a post on X on Saturday, Gandhi said that 11 of the 14 petrol samples tested at an accredited laboratory were found to contain more than 20 per cent ethanol. Questioning the Centre's ethanol-blending programme, he remarked, "E20 turned into 420 - stealing petrol from the public's cars!" He accused both public sector and private oil companies of exceeding the prescribed limit and raised concerns over the transparency of their testing procedures.

According to the test results cited by Gandhi, samples collected from Indian Oil Corporation (IOCL) and Hindustan Petroleum Corporation Limited (HPCL) contained 31.2 per cent and 30.5 per cent ethanol, respectively.

The samples were collected from seven districts of Karnataka: Bengaluru, Kolar, Chikkaballapura, Bengaluru Rural, Ramanagara, Mangaluru and Tumakuru.

Gandhi also named Bharat Petroleum Corporation Limited (BPCL), Nayara Energy and Shell among the companies whose petrol samples were tested. He claimed that the companies' in-house laboratories had not disclosed the ethanol content found in the samples.

Oil Companies Dispute Karnataka's Test Findings

The allegations have emerged amid an ongoing dispute between the Karnataka government and oil marketing companies over the ethanol content of petrol being sold across the state.

Karnataka Food, Civil Supplies and Consumer Affairs Minister Rizwan Arshad had earlier stated that tests conducted by the NABL-accredited and ISO-certified Shriram Research Institute in Bengaluru detected ethanol levels exceeding the permitted 20 per cent limit in several petrol samples.

According to the state government, the samples were initially sent to the in-house laboratories of IOCL and BPCL for testing. However, the reports did not mention the ethanol content. Following this, the government decided to have the samples examined independently.

Oil Companies Reject Allegations of Excessive Ethanol Blending

The three public sector oil companies, IOCL, BPCL and HPCL, have rejected Karnataka's findings that petrol contained ethanol beyond the prescribed limit. They maintained that the allegations were not supported by tests conducted in accordance with the prescribed procedures.

In a joint statement, the companies said that E20 petrol supplied across the country, including Karnataka, complies with the Bureau of Indian Standards' specification IS 17021.

They also questioned the sampling procedure followed during the October 2026 exercise, claiming that their representatives were not involved in collecting the fuel samples. The companies further said they had not received retained samples, details of individual fuel outlets or complete laboratory reports.

Raising concerns over the third-party laboratory certificates cited by the Karnataka government, the oil companies said the documents did not provide technical details about the testing methods used to determine ethanol levels. They maintained that the reported findings could not be independently verified without access to the necessary documentation and corresponding fuel samples.

The companies also rejected estimates suggesting annual mileage losses of Rs 62,000 crore and vehicle repair costs of Rs 39,000 crore. They argued that these figures required proper scientific and technical evidence.

Seeking further verification, the oil marketing companies have asked the Karnataka government to share complete sampling records and provide access to the corresponding fuel samples. They have proposed that the samples be tested independently at an authorised laboratory in the presence of state government representatives.

The dispute has brought the ethanol content of petrol supplied in Karnataka under scrutiny, with Rahul Gandhi's allegations based on independent laboratory findings being contested by oil marketing companies that maintain their fuel meets the prescribed national standards.

The Chhattisgarh Staff Selection Board (CGSSB) has announced recruitment for 1,703 Group-2, Class III posts across various state government departments, opening applications for candidates with graduate and postgraduate-level qualifications. The recruitment notification was issued on November 5, 2026, under Group-2, Sub-group 02. For the first time, the Board will conduct a written examination for these posts.

The recruitment also includes a provision for candidates from Chhattisgarh. Residents of the state who appear for the examination will be eligible for a refund of the examination fee in accordance with government rules. The refunded amount will be credited to the same bank account used to pay the fee.

Assistant Grade-3 accounts for the largest share of the vacancies, with 1,206 posts. The remaining positions cover clerical, stenography, data entry and assistant sub-inspector roles across different categories.

The post-wise distribution includes 279 vacancies for Assistant Sub-Inspector (District Unit Cadre), 50 for Registrar Clerk and 40 for Assistant Sub-Inspector (General Branch). The recruitment also includes 34 posts of Sub-Inspector (Stenographer, General Branch), 30 Stenographer (Hindi) posts, 25 Data Entry Operator posts and 23 Steno-Typist posts.

In addition, 13 vacancies are available for Stenographer (Bilingual) and three for Stenographer (English). Together, these ten categories account for all 1,703 advertised vacancies.

The online application process began on November 5, 2026. Interested candidates can submit their applications through the Board's official website by November 27, 2026, at 5 pm.

Candidates will also have an opportunity to correct their application details between November 28 and November 30, 2026. The correction facility will remain available until 5 pm on November 30.

The written examination is scheduled for January 10, 2027, from 10 am to 12:15 pm. Admit cards are expected to be available from January 4, 2027. The examination will be conducted at the five divisional headquarters of Chhattisgarh.

The recruitment examination will be held under examination code G20227. Candidates have been advised to refer to the detailed recruitment notification for post-wise eligibility criteria, educational qualifications and other application requirements.

The Board has reiterated that eligible Chhattisgarh residents who appear for the examination will receive a refund of the examination fee. The amount will be transferred to the bank account from which the original payment was made.

With 1,703 vacancies across ten categories and a written examination being introduced for the first time, candidates must complete the application process within the prescribed deadline and check the official notification for eligibility requirements and examination-related updates.

Anthropic CEO Dario Amodei has called for stronger government regulation of artificial intelligence, warning that the technology is advancing faster than existing safety measures can keep pace. He has urged governments to introduce safeguards that would allow authorities to intervene and prevent the deployment of AI models considered unsafe.

In an exclusive interview with ABC News, Amodei said AI must be developed with appropriate safeguards to ensure its impact on society remains positive. He stressed that while AI companies have the primary responsibility to make the technology reliable, governments should also have the authority to intervene when necessary.

"We're proposing stronger regulation of the technology, proposing giving the government the ability to, again, in a narrow way, block deployment of unsafe technology," he said.

"We have to figure out how to make this technology reliably," Amodei added, emphasising that "the onus primarily falls on us."

His remarks follow a letter he published on Wednesday, in which he warned that existing AI safety measures are not keeping pace with the technology's rapid development. He argued that governments should have the authority to restrict the release of AI models if independent assessments identify unacceptable risks.

In the letter, Amodei wrote that the government "should have the power to block or deter deployment of the model if it is determined, in light of third-party assessment, to present unacceptable risks."

Alongside the essay, Amodei also announced a $200 million investment in research examining the impact of artificial intelligence on society.

Addressing concerns about AI-driven job losses, the Anthropic CEO said employment markets have historically recovered following major technological innovations. However, he indicated that the scale and speed of the current AI transition could require government intervention to support workers in both the short and long term.

He highlighted several possible measures to help employees navigate the immediate economic disruption, including wage reinsurance, retention incentives for companies to discourage layoffs and improvements to unemployment insurance.

"There are these concepts around wage reinsurance, retention incentives to encourage companies not to lay off people, improvements to unemployment insurance. These are things to help people through a bumpy but relatively usual transition," he told ABC News.

Amodei also called for discussions on longer-term economic support as AI continues to reshape the employment landscape. He suggested that potential measures could include increasing capital gains taxes, introducing taxes on AI companies or raising corporate taxes more broadly.

"In the meantime, we need to talk about kind of longer-term economic support, and we could imagine things like raising the capital gains tax, imagine things like taxes on AI companies or the corporate tax in general," he said.

The interview also addressed a statement released by Anthropic last week concerning the possibility of AI systems becoming capable of developing themselves. The company had discussed the prospect of a pause in development as the technology approaches the ability to contribute to its own advancement.

Asked about the proposal, Amodei said an effective pause would require agreement among countries and all relevant AI laboratories. He clarified that his position was not that such a pause was guaranteed to happen, but that governments and companies should be willing to attempt it.

"I would like to clarify," Amodei said. "My point is that we should be willing to at least try."

He explained that any such initiative would need the participation of all relevant AI players, including geopolitical actors, for it to be effective.

However, Amodei expressed serious doubts about China's willingness to act responsibly in the event of an international agreement to pause AI development.

"I don't trust China at all," he said.

He illustrated his concerns by referring to Anthropic's Mythos model, which was unveiled earlier this year and developed to identify software vulnerabilities.

"Imagine if China had built Mythos," Amodei said, warning that the technology could potentially be used for cyberattacks and geopolitical conflicts.

"They would have used it to attack us. They would have used to help Russia in Ukraine. They might have used it to help Iran. They may have used this to help North Korea. Who knows what they would have done with it?" he added.

During testing, Claude Mythos demonstrated the ability to exploit thousands of bugs and software defects in major operating systems and online browsers. However, the model was never widely released to the public.

Amodei said the experience with Mythos had strengthened his belief that AI models require regulation at the global level. The model's demonstrated ability to identify and exploit software vulnerabilities highlighted the potential risks associated with increasingly capable AI systems.

Despite his concerns about safety, cybersecurity and employment, Amodei remained optimistic about artificial intelligence's potential to benefit humanity, particularly in the medical and scientific fields.

He said AI could help address diseases that have affected humanity for centuries or even millennia, pointing to its ability to analyse complex information and identify connections that may otherwise remain difficult to establish.

"I think that AI could cure many of the diseases that have plagued humanity for centuries or millennia," he said.

Amodei, who previously worked as a biologist, said biological research involves considerable complexity and that AI's ability to connect seemingly unrelated information could accelerate medical discoveries.

"I used to be a biologist. Biology is incredibly complicated," he said. "AI has an incredible ability to draw connections between a wide variety of disparate information, and I think that's exactly what we need for biomedical advancement."

Amodei's remarks underline the growing debate over how governments, technology companies and international stakeholders should manage the risks of increasingly advanced AI systems while preserving their potential benefits for healthcare, scientific research and the wider economy.

Leader of the Opposition in Himachal Pradesh and former Chief Minister Jairam Thakur has accused the Congress government led by Chief Minister Sukhvinder Singh Sukhu of attempting to take political credit for the Supreme Court verdict on the state’s electricity share in the Bhakra Beas Management Board (BBMB). Thakur maintained that the achievement was the result of nearly three decades of sustained legal and political efforts by successive governments in Himachal Pradesh.

Addressing a press conference at his official residence in Shimla on November 7, Thakur said the state had secured its rightful electricity share through a prolonged struggle involving multiple administrations. He questioned Sukhu’s attempt to claim personal credit for the decision, arguing that the outcome was based on legal arguments and historical facts developed over several decades.

Recounting the history of the dispute, Thakur said former Chief Minister Shanta Kumar was the first to demand royalty on Himachal Pradesh’s water resources. The matter subsequently reached the Supreme Court in 1996 during the tenure of former Chief Minister Virbhadra Singh. On September 27, 2011, under the government led by Prem Kumar Dhumal, Himachal Pradesh secured a 7.19 per cent electricity share.

Thakur further recalled that on January 4, 2018, the BJP government led by him decided to pursue discussions on restoring differential energy. The legal proceedings continued thereafter, eventually leading to a resolution with the intervention of the Central Government and the Attorney General of India.

According to Thakur, after adjusting capital liabilities, Himachal Pradesh will receive 11,973 million units of electricity over the next 20 years. This includes approximately 598 million units annually during the six winter months.

Questioning the Congress government's claims, Thakur said, “Who should get the credit for this decision? This is the outcome of a 30-year-long struggle involving successive governments. The Chief Minister should explain what his personal contribution to this achievement has been.”

Turning to electricity tariffs, Thakur demanded that the Sukhu government restore the 125-unit free electricity scheme, which had been discontinued. He also questioned the Congress government over its pre-election promise to provide 300 units of free electricity to consumers.

“The Congress had promised 300 units of free electricity before the elections. What has happened to that guarantee? The government must fulfil its commitment to the people,” he said.

Thakur also raised concerns over rising electricity charges, additional cess and the increasing financial burden on industries. He called for clarity on the government's electricity policy, stressing the need to ensure affordable power and protect industrial interests.

Criticising the state government's financial management, the former Chief Minister alleged that government employees were still waiting for their dearness allowance, arrears and reimbursement of medical bills, even as the government continued to borrow money. He claimed that despite numerous announcements, the administration had failed to provide meaningful relief to employees and the public.

Taking a political swipe at the ruling Congress, Thakur said making unfulfilled promises and claiming credit for the efforts of previous governments would not help the party retain public confidence.

“The Congress government will not be repeated; it will be defeated in the next elections,” he asserted.

Thakur further stated that if the BJP returned to power in Himachal Pradesh, it would review the decisions taken by the present government.

The dispute over Himachal Pradesh's electricity entitlement in the BBMB has remained a longstanding issue, with successive state governments pursuing the matter through legal and political channels. Thakur's remarks have brought the history of the 30-year struggle, the allocation of 11,973 million units over 20 years and the Congress government's commitments on free electricity back into the political debate.

The Arunachal Pradesh government on Saturday released four protesters detained during the ongoing agitation against the proposed 11,000-MW Siang Upper Multipurpose Project (SUMP), following a decision announced as a goodwill gesture to facilitate dialogue and reconciliation. However, the move has failed to satisfy protesters, who continue to demand the release of 40 other detainees and the withdrawal of security forces deployed in the state.

The four released detainees have been identified as Adum Tayom, Omak Paron, Okut Paloh and Oson Paron. They were initially arrested under the Arunachal Pradesh Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Act, 2014, following demonstrations in the Siang Valley.

Their release came a day after the Chief Minister’s Office (CMO), through a letter dated November 6, communicated the government's decision to free them to create a conducive atmosphere for dialogue and reconciliation. The government also approved the reinstatement of gaon buras and gaon buris who had faced disciplinary action over their participation in the protests.

In its communication to the Siang Indigenous Farmers’ Forum (SIFF), the CMO addressed four key demands raised by the protesters. These included the release of detainees, withdrawal of security forces, withdrawal of criminal cases and reinstatement of suspended village authorities and government employees.

While accepting the demands for the release of the four detainees and reinstatement of village authorities, the government maintained that decisions regarding the deployment or withdrawal of Central Armed Police Forces (CAPF) and Rapid Action Force (RAF) personnel would depend on law and order conditions and public safety requirements.

On the demand for withdrawal of FIRs registered against protesters, the administration stated that closure of criminal cases would have to follow due legal process. However, it expressed willingness to discuss the issue during upcoming dialogue sessions.

Reacting to the government's decision, Tadak Nalo, founder and chairman of the Arunachal Frontier Tribal Front (AFTF), told Hub News that the release of four detainees was welcome but did not meet the protesters' expectations.

“Four of them were released today. We appreciate it, but we are not fully satisfied because 40 others were also arrested. We want all of them to be released,” Nalo said.

He reiterated the protesters' demand for the withdrawal of security forces deployed in the state, making it clear that the agitation's demands remained unresolved.

“It is a partial victory for us. When all the detainees are released and the forces are completely withdrawn, only then will it be a complete victory for our protest,” he added.

The government's decision marks a step towards addressing the demands raised during the agitation against the proposed Siang Upper Multipurpose Project. However, the continued detention of 40 protesters, the deployment of security personnel and the pending demand for withdrawal of criminal cases remain key issues ahead of the proposed dialogue between the administration and protesters.

The Bombay High Court has quashed the Maharashtra government’s decision to acquire 84 hectares of land belonging to Tata Power Company Limited (TPCL) near the Thokarwadi Dam in Pune district for a private institution’s project. The court observed that Tata Power’s existing hydroelectric projects and their catchment areas cannot be compromised to benefit a private institution.

The court also held that the Maharashtra Industrial Development Act (MID Act) had been wrongly invoked to bypass the prescribed procedures under the general land acquisition law. A division bench comprising Justice Manish Pitale and Justice Shriram Shirsat allowed Tata Power’s petition and cancelled the state government’s notifications dated March 3 and 4, the Maharashtra Industrial Development Corporation’s (MIDC) notice dated March 7, and the entire land acquisition process initiated in connection with the matter.

The 84 hectares of land, comprising two plots in the reservoir area of Thokarwadi Dam, had been transferred to Tata Power’s predecessor company between 1911 and 1930 for hydroelectric projects.

Tata Power currently operates the 75 MW Bhivpuri hydroelectric project in the area. Under an agreement with the state government, the company has also proposed a 1,000 MW pumped storage project, for which the land is required.

Meanwhile, the state government had already allotted approximately 126 hectares of land to the Maharshi Vedoddharak Foundation. The foundation plans to establish a 'Centre for Perfect Health' project on the land, comprising an Ayurvedic medicine manufacturing centre, a wellness centre and a college.

For this project, the foundation had sought an additional 84 hectares of land. On March 3, 2025, the state government declared the land an industrial area and initiated the acquisition process the following day. Subsequently, MIDC issued a show-cause notice to Tata Power.

No Record of Land Being Unused

In its order, the High Court noted that the government notifications did not record any finding that the land was lying unused. On the contrary, the land continued to be used for its original purpose and was also required for the proposed hydroelectric project.

The court further observed that the concerned authorities had proceeded with the acquisition without conducting an inquiry into these aspects.

The bench also questioned why the cabinet sub-committee had proceeded with the acquisition despite a high-level committee rejecting the Maharshi Vedoddharak Foundation's demand in November 2023.

By setting aside the government notifications, the MIDC notice and the subsequent acquisition proceedings, the High Court reaffirmed that land required for existing and proposed hydroelectric projects cannot be diverted through an improper use of industrial land acquisition provisions to benefit a private institution.

Political tensions have intensified over the appointment of government-nominated directors to the Gokul Milk Union, with questions being raised over the Maharashtra government's decision and reports of discontent within the Shiv Sena led by Deputy Chief Minister Eknath Shinde. Chief Minister Devendra Fadnavis has defended the move, stating that it was a collective cabinet decision taken to resolve a statutory deadlock and not an attempt by the state government to take control of the cooperative institution.

Responding to questions from the media during a press conference, Fadnavis said the appointment of government-nominated members had been approved by the state cabinet. He explained that leaders from all four local political parties, including the BJP, Shiv Sena, Nationalist Congress Party and Jan Surajya, had approached the government and highlighted a statutory complication concerning the institution.

Following their representations, the government sought the opinion of the Advocate General and held discussions on the matter before proceeding with the decision.

Fadnavis further clarified that the proposal was submitted after discussions among Deputy Chief Minister Sunetra Pawar, Deputy Chief Minister Eknath Shinde and himself. The proposal carried the signatures of all three leaders, he said, stressing that it was not initiated by any single political party but was a decision taken collectively by the government.

"This decision has been taken to fulfil our statutory responsibility. If there is no statutory deadlock there, the government will not intervene under any circumstances," Fadnavis said, dismissing the debate over whether any particular party was satisfied or unhappy with the decision.

Fadnavis also criticised the Congress, accusing the party of turning even cooperative institution elections into political issues. He said the Congress had reached a stage where it was attempting to give a political colour to elections within cooperative organisations. "They want to make it a political issue. We do not want to indulge in politics," he said.

Addressing the legal opinion obtained from former Chief Justice of India Bhushan Gavai, Fadnavis said the opinion had been based on the facts and documents presented by Bंटी Patil. He pointed out that the final paragraph of Gavai's opinion contained a caveat stating that the observations were based on the facts placed before him.

According to Fadnavis, the opinion did not mention that the Gokul chairman's election could not be conducted because the required quorum was unavailable. He claimed that the former Chief Justice had not been informed that neither of the two groups had enough members to meet the quorum requirement.

Explaining the circumstances that led to the government's intervention, Fadnavis said neither group had sufficient numbers to complete the quorum following the Gokul election. Since a chairman cannot be elected without the required quorum, the process had become difficult.

He said that when the first date for the chairman's election was scheduled, only one group was present, preventing the election from taking place. The matter subsequently reached the court, which directed that the election be held on the 10th. However, Fadnavis clarified that the court had not directed the authorities to conduct the election without a quorum. Therefore, if the quorum requirement was not fulfilled again, the election could not proceed.

Referring to Gokul's governing provisions, the Chief Minister said that if the chairman's election failed to take place on three occasions, all powers would revert to the Deputy District Registrar (DDR). In such a situation, elected representatives would lose their authority over the process. He said the provision allowing certain members to be nominated with voting rights had been introduced to address this situation.

Fadnavis described the issue as a statutory complication arising from the inability of either group to meet the quorum requirement. He rejected allegations that the state government wanted to capture control of Gokul, describing such suggestions as misplaced.

He also pointed out that Gokul was an institution primarily limited to one district, although it had a greater presence in certain talukas. He questioned why the state government would be eager to take control of an institution operating within such a limited geographical area.

The Chief Minister went further, saying that the government did not actually need to make the appointments if both groups were willing to sit together and resolve the dispute. He maintained that an agreement between the two groups would eliminate the need for government-nominated members.

"If both groups sit together and reach a decision, there will be no need for other people. If they resolve the matter among themselves, the government will not send anyone. The government has no interest in appointing anyone," he said.

Reiterating his position, Fadnavis said the government's only objective was to fulfil its statutory responsibilities. He argued that if a meeting were held without the required quorum, the authority would eventually return to the government through the DDR mechanism anyway.

He said the government had no interest in taking control of Gokul and described it as a good institution, while questioning why the state government would seek to capture it.

Fadnavis also referred to subsequent electoral developments to counter allegations that the Gokul dispute was part of a larger political strategy. He said the outcome of the Gokul election had no impact on state-level politics. In the subsequent Teachers' Constituency election, Congress MLA Bंटी Patil's candidate had finished fourth, while the BJP candidate had won.

He maintained that the Gokul issue should not be given a political interpretation and reiterated that the government had no political interest in the matter. According to him, if both groups resolve the dispute among themselves and no statutory crisis arises, the government would have no reason to intervene.

The Chief Minister's remarks underline the government's position that the nominations are intended to address the institutional deadlock over the chairman's election, while leaving the two rival groups with the option of resolving the matter through mutual agreement.

The dispute between the Karnataka government and public sector oil marketing companies over ethanol blending in petrol has intensified after the state government alleged that some petrol pumps were selling fuel containing up to 31.2% ethanol, exceeding the prescribed 20% limit.

Indian Oil Corporation, Bharat Petroleum and Hindustan Petroleum Corporation have rejected the allegations, questioning the procedures followed by the state government during its investigation. The companies maintain that the claims cannot be substantiated because the inspection and testing were not conducted in accordance with prescribed regulatory and technical procedures.

Karnataka's Minister for Food, Civil Supplies, Consumer Affairs and Legal Metrology, Rizwan Arshad, recently alleged that major oil companies were supplying petrol with ethanol content exceeding the permitted limit.

According to the minister, samples collected from Bengaluru, Kolar, Chikkaballapur, Bengaluru Rural, Ramanagara, Mangaluru and Tumakuru districts showed ethanol blending levels ranging from 26% to 31.2%. Based on these findings, the state government has sought action against the oil companies over the alleged violation of the prescribed ethanol blending limit.

However, Indian Oil Corporation, Bharat Petroleum and Hindustan Petroleum Corporation have challenged the state's findings. The companies stated that the conclusions were not based on tests conducted in accordance with the prescribed statutory and technical procedures.

They maintained that the E20 petrol supplied by them across Karnataka and other parts of the country complies with the Bureau of Indian Standards' IS 17021 specification.

The oil companies have also raised serious questions about the sample collection and testing methodology adopted in October 2026, disputing the validity of the state's findings.

The disagreement has brought the ethanol content of petrol, the reliability of fuel testing procedures and compliance with prescribed blending standards into focus, with the Karnataka government and public sector oil marketing companies maintaining opposing positions over the alleged excess ethanol levels.

Karnataka and Arunachal Pradesh have announced increases in Dearness Allowance (DA) for government employees and Dearness Relief (DR) for pensioners ahead of Diwali, bringing additional financial relief to beneficiaries. Following the Central Government's decision, several state governments are also revising DA and DR rates. The latest announcements from Karnataka and Arunachal Pradesh will benefit employees from July 1, 2026, with the revised rates applicable retrospectively.

Karnataka Increases DA by 2.5%

The Karnataka Government announced a 2.5 percentage point increase in Dearness Allowance for state government employees on November 5. Following the revision, the DA rate has increased to 18 per cent.

The revised rates will come into effect from July 1, 2026. This means employees will receive the benefit of the increased allowance from July onwards. Eligible employees may also receive arrears for the previous months.

The decision is expected to provide financial relief to state government employees amid rising inflation.

Arunachal Pradesh Raises DA and DR by 3%

The Arunachal Pradesh Government has also announced an increase in Dearness Allowance for government employees and Dearness Relief for pensioners ahead of Diwali.

Both DA and DR have been increased by 3 percentage points. Following the revision, the DA rate for government employees has reached 63 per cent.

Chief Minister Pema Khandu shared the announcement through social media. The revised rates will be effective from July 1, 2026.

Central Government Increased DA Twice in 2026

The Central Government revises the Dearness Allowance of its employees twice a year. The revisions are made according to the January and July salary cycles.

In January 2026, the Central Government increased DA by 2 percentage points. This was followed by another 3 percentage point increase under the July revision cycle.

With these two increases, the total DA hike for central government employees in 2026 stands at 5 percentage points, taking the allowance rate to 63 per cent.

Other States Have Also Announced DA Hikes

Before Karnataka and Arunachal Pradesh, several other state governments had announced increases in Dearness Allowance for government employees and Dearness Relief for pensioners.

These states include Tamil Nadu, Rajasthan, Haryana and Chhattisgarh. The successive announcements are providing additional financial support to government employees and pensioners across these states.

The latest revisions ahead of the Diwali festival will extend the increased allowance benefits to eligible employees and pensioners, with the revised rates in Karnataka and Arunachal Pradesh taking effect from July 1, 2026.

Recruitment has begun for 1,501 vacancies across 38 categories of posts in three companies under the Chhattisgarh State Power Company. The vacancies include 195 Class II posts and 1,306 Class III and Class IV posts. The detailed recruitment notification has been published on the official website of the power company.

Among the available positions, Junior Engineer (Electrical) has the highest number of technical vacancies, with 167 posts, while Data Entry Operator accounts for the largest number of vacancies overall, with 609 posts. The recruitment drive will cover the Chhattisgarh State Power Generation Company, Chhattisgarh State Power Transmission Company and Chhattisgarh State Power Distribution Company.

Of the 609 Data Entry Operator vacancies, 95 are in the Generation Company, 64 in the Transmission Company and 450 in the Distribution Company.

Online applications opened at 8 pm on November 6. Eligible candidates can submit their applications and pay the required fees until 11:55 pm on November 26. Applicants can pay the fee through net banking, credit cards, debit cards or UPI.

Only native residents of Chhattisgarh will be eligible to apply for Class III and Class IV positions. Candidates applying for common posts across the three companies will also have to specify their order of preference among the companies.

The technical vacancies include 26 Assistant Engineer (Mechanical) posts, 92 Assistant Engineer (Electrical) posts, 10 Assistant Engineer (Electronics and Telecommunication) posts, two Assistant Engineer (Computer Science) posts, two Assistant Engineer (Information Technology) posts and 20 Assistant Engineer (Civil) posts.

The recruitment notification also includes one Fire Officer post, three Security Officer posts, six Shift Chemist posts and three Programmer posts.

For Junior Engineer positions, the vacancies include 12 posts in Mechanical, 167 in Electrical, nine in Electronics and Telecommunication, one in Computer Science, one in Information Technology and 26 in Civil.

Other vacancies include six Sub Fire Officer posts, 10 Security Inspector posts and 19 Security Sub-Inspector posts. The company will also recruit candidates for Attendant Plant Grade-II positions, including 84 Fitters, 36 Turners, 90 Electricians, 45 Instrument Mechanics and 45 Electronics positions. Additionally, 45 Fire Attendant Grade-II posts are available.

The remaining vacancies cover several managerial, administrative, medical and technical positions. These include 15 Assistant Manager (Finance and Accounts) posts, 15 Medical Officer posts, eight Assistant Legal Officer posts and eight Assistant Industrial Relations Officer posts.

The recruitment drive also includes 12 Stenographer Grade-II (English) posts and 13 Stenographer Grade-II (Hindi) posts. Other vacancies comprise six Assistant Lab Technician posts, 25 Assistant Pharmacist posts, 18 Assistant Staff Nurse posts, three Assistant Radiographer posts, five Assistant Dresser posts and three Assistant ECG Technician posts.

With 1,501 vacancies spread across 38 categories, the recruitment drive offers opportunities in technical, administrative, operational and medical positions across the three Chhattisgarh State Power companies. Candidates seeking government-sector employment in the state can submit their applications within the November 26 deadline, subject to the eligibility conditions specified in the official notification.

The Central Government is considering giving the Telecom Regulatory Authority of India (TRAI) direct powers to impose financial penalties on telecom companies violating regulations related to spam calls and unsolicited messages. The proposed move could strengthen enforcement against companies failing to comply with anti-spam rules, as complaints from consumers continue to rise.

Until now, TRAI has faced several legal and technical hurdles in ensuring compliance and penalising telecom operators. Under the existing system, if a telecom company violates regulations concerning spam calls, TRAI can recommend penalties to the Department of Telecommunications (DoT) rather than imposing fines directly. However, legal complications have often allowed companies to avoid penalties or obtain stays on orders by approaching the Telecom Disputes Settlement and Appellate Tribunal (TDSAT).

The government is now working to eliminate these legal loopholes by empowering TRAI to impose penalties directly on telecom companies found violating the regulations. The move is aimed at making the enforcement mechanism stricter and improving accountability among telecom operators.

The proposal comes amid a sharp rise in consumer complaints about unsolicited calls and messages. Data shows that complaints against unwanted calls and messages have increased consistently since 2022. Around 82 per cent of these complaints were registered against unregistered telemarketers.

According to the reported figures, authorities received 13.62 lakh complaints in 2023. The number increased to more than 19.38 lakh in 2024 before rising further to 31.09 lakh in 2025.

The trend has continued in 2026. More than 20.75 lakh complaints related to spam calls were registered in the first six months of this year alone. This figure represents 66 per cent of the total complaints recorded throughout 2025.

While complaints about spam calls have increased, action against the numbers used to make such calls has declined. Between August and December 2024, authorities disconnected 9.21 lakh fraudulent connections. However, the number dropped sharply to just 1.94 lakh in 2025.

The decline continued during the first half of 2026, when only 79,000 connections were disconnected.

The proposed changes could give TRAI greater enforcement powers against telecom companies and address the gap between rising consumer complaints and action against violations. Whether the new framework can make penalties more effective will depend on the powers granted to the regulator and their implementation.

A switch to potassium-enriched salt could prevent around four lakh deaths and more than 15 lakh cases of cardiovascular and kidney disease every year in India, according to a study examining the potential health benefits of replacing regular table salt with a lower-sodium alternative.

The study, which analysed 193 countries, was published in the journal Nature Health. It estimated that nearly 30 lakh deaths and one crore new cases of cardiovascular and kidney disease could be prevented globally every year through the widespread adoption of potassium-enriched salt.

Potassium-enriched salt is produced by replacing a portion of the sodium chloride in conventional table salt with potassium chloride. Bruce Neal, senior professorial fellow at The George Institute for Global Health, Australia, said switching to this alternative could deliver widespread health benefits, potentially preventing as many as one in ten cardiovascular deaths in most countries.

"Consuming too much sodium and not enough potassium are well established causes of high blood pressure -- a major risk factor for life threatening conditions like strokes, heart attacks and kidney disease. Switching to potassium-enriched salt addresses both these dietary issues at the same time, with substantial health benefits," he said.

Potassium-enriched salt looks, tastes and cooks like regular table salt. The World Health Organization (WHO) recommends replacing conventional table salt with lower-sodium salt substitutes containing potassium. It has also identified reducing sodium intake as a cost-effective approach to improving public health and lowering the burden of noncommunicable diseases.

Neal said a complete global transition from regular salt to potassium-enriched alternatives might be an aspirational goal, but the findings provide an opportunity for countries to consider the potential benefits of such a shift.

"While a global shift from regular salt to a potassium-enriched substitute is aspirational, this is a starting point to get countries thinking about the opportunity -- with much greater potential and at much lower cost than many drug-based treatments," he said.

The researchers evaluated several hypothetical scenarios, ranging from a complete global replacement of regular salt to more targeted adoption among people diagnosed with and receiving treatment for high blood pressure. Even the most limited level of replacement was found to offer substantial health benefits.

According to the study, replacing only regular table salt used in households with potassium-enriched salt could prevent 18.5 lakh deaths and approximately 62 lakh cases of cardiovascular and chronic kidney disease every year.

In another scenario, replacing salt used exclusively in processed foods and restaurant meals could prevent 15.6 lakh deaths and 54.6 lakh cases of cardiovascular and chronic kidney disease.

The benefits would be considerably greater if both household table salt and salt used in processed and restaurant foods were replaced. Such a combined shift could prevent nearly 30 lakh deaths and more than one crore cases of cardiovascular and chronic kidney disease annually.

"Worldwide replacement of all salt could prevent 2.96 million deaths, 10.17 million new cases and 69.43 million disability-adjusted life years each year from cardiovascular disease and chronic kidney disease," the authors wrote.

However, the researchers also highlighted concerns about hyperkalaemia, a condition characterised by excessively high potassium levels in the blood. The risk is particularly relevant for people with advanced kidney disease.

Despite this concern, the study found that the potential health benefits of potassium-enriched salt outweighed the associated risks, even among patients with advanced kidney disease.

Vivek Jha, nephrologist and senior professorial fellow at The George Institute in India, said people with serious kidney conditions and those taking medications that significantly increase potassium levels in the blood need to exercise caution.

"People with serious kidney disease and those taking medications that significantly raise blood potassium levels need to take precautions. Risks for this group can be managed effectively through patient education, product labelling, and clinical oversight," Jha said.

The findings highlight the potential of potassium-enriched salt as a public health intervention, with the study estimating that replacing conventional salt could prevent millions of deaths and reduce the annual burden of cardiovascular and chronic kidney disease worldwide. For India, the estimated reduction of around four lakh deaths and more than 15 lakh disease cases underscores the potential impact of changes in everyday salt consumption.

India's Aditya-L1 solar mission has completed its first year of observations with the Solar Ultraviolet Imaging Telescope (SUIT), providing scientists with valuable insights into the Sun's lower atmosphere and its explosive activity, including solar flares. A research paper documenting the instrument's performance has detailed how it was operated, calibrated and maintained while recording important solar features and events during the period.

The study, titled 'Unraveling the Secrets of the Lower Solar Atmosphere: One Year of Operation of the Solar Ultraviolet Imaging Telescope (SUIT) on board Aditya-L1', was led by Rahul Gopalakrishnan and a team of researchers. It examines the telescope's operational performance and the scientific observations collected during its first year.

Aditya-L1 was launched by the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) on September 2, 2023, becoming India's first dedicated space-based solar observatory. The spacecraft reached its designated halo orbit around the Sun-Earth Lagrange Point 1 (L1) on January 6, 2024, at a distance of approximately 1.5 million kilometres from Earth.

Its position at L1 provides a largely uninterrupted view of the Sun, without the regular interruptions caused by Earth's shadow or eclipses. The mission aims to help scientists understand how the Sun's outer atmosphere is heated, how solar flares and massive eruptions of material originate, and how these activities influence space weather. Such disturbances can potentially affect satellites, communication networks and power systems on Earth.

SUIT is one of the seven scientific instruments aboard Aditya-L1. It captures images of the Sun in near-ultraviolet light, covering wavelengths between 200 and 400 nanometres. These observations allow researchers to examine solar features that are not easily studied through visible-light imaging.

The instrument was switched on November 20, 2023, and captured its first scientific images on December 6, while the spacecraft was still travelling towards L1. Its ultraviolet observations provide insights into the Sun's photosphere and chromosphere, two atmospheric layers that offer important clues about solar activity.

The research paper documents SUIT's calibration, routine maintenance, operating procedures and observations throughout its first year. It also highlights notable solar features and events recorded by the instrument during this period.

Studying activity in the Sun's lower atmosphere is important for understanding how solar disturbances develop and evolve into larger eruptions. By tracing these processes, scientists can gain a better understanding of solar activity and its potential influence on space weather, including the risks posed to technology operating around Earth.

With a planned mission life of five years, Aditya-L1 will continue collecting solar observations through its seven scientific instruments. The data gathered over the mission's operational period is expected to help scientists develop a more comprehensive understanding of the Sun, its atmospheric activity and its influence on Earth's space environment.

Former Australian batter Usman Khawaja has made fresh revelations about the 2018 ball-tampering scandal in Cape Town, claiming that the entire Australian team knew about the use of sandpaper and that the same method had also been used during the preceding Test in Port Elizabeth (Gqeberha). His claims, made more than eight years after the incident, contradict the position taken by Australia's bowling attack, which had previously denied any knowledge of ball tampering.

“It was all of us. Not the batters, not the bowlers, not the staff. All of us,” Khawaja told the Sydney Morning Herald. He has also detailed his account of the controversy in his upcoming autobiography, Sabr, which is due to be released soon.

The Cape Town incident unfolded during Australia's Test against South Africa when opener Cameron Bancroft was caught hiding a small piece of sandpaper down his trousers. Following the incident, then-captain Steve Smith publicly admitted that the team's leadership group had planned to tamper with the ball.

Smith and vice-captain David Warner were subsequently handed 12-month bans, while Bancroft received a nine-month suspension. Smith was also prohibited from holding any leadership position in Australian cricket for a further period of 12 months. Warner was handed a lifetime captaincy ban, which was later removed in 2024. He was subsequently named captain of Sydney Thunder.

Khawaja said he had urged his teammates inside the dressing room to accept collective responsibility rather than allowing Smith, Warner and Bancroft to shoulder the consequences alone. He maintained that the entire team knew what was happening and should have faced the issue together.

“In an ideal world, I don’t want to do this,” Khawaja was quoted as saying by the Sydney Morning Herald. “I don’t want to be the one who comes out and talks about the truth. The issue is that I genuinely thought after eight years the truth would have been out by now.

“Maybe I thought Davey would have exposed it, or someone else would have talked about it more. I just didn’t think it was going to come down to this. But the longer it’s gone on for, and right from the very start, I’ve been on the train of collectively taking it.

“Even in the change rooms when I was talking to them after the game. I said, ‘Take this as a team’. We did this as a team. We knew what was going on, and we have to take it as a team, and so I was always of that stance.

“Obviously, it didn’t work that way, and those three guys got crucified.”

Khawaja explained that he had decided to speak publicly because he believed it was the right thing to do. He also expressed support for Smith, Warner and Bancroft, saying the three players had continued to face the consequences of the controversy years after it took place.

“I’ve always felt like there’s more to life than just cricket, and these guys, in some respect, deserve that justice,” Khawaja said. “And it just doesn’t feel like anyone’s going to give it to them. None of those three want to be the first to say anything. And rightly so, it will just be hearsay and ‘their word’ if they do. They needed someone else to say something.”

Khawaja also questioned the investigation conducted by Cricket Australia following the Cape Town Test. While the investigation resulted in sanctions against Smith, Warner and Bancroft, he said he was surprised that the board never interviewed him.

“I was sitting next to Cam Bancroft that whole Test match, and I didn’t get interviewed,” Khawaja said. “I thoroughly feel that I didn’t get interviewed because of that, because they knew that I wanted to take it as a team, because they knew I was ready to tell the truth if I was interviewed.

“And I was waiting for my phone to ring. It just never rang, and then the penalties were given, and I couldn’t believe it.”

The former Australian opener further revealed that he had spoken to current Test captain Pat Cummins before Australia's recent tour of South Africa, during which the team lost the Test series 2-1. Khawaja informed Cummins about his autobiography and his intention to address the ball-tampering controversy in the book.

Khawaja, who retired from international cricket at the start of the year following the Ashes, acknowledged that his revelations could make things difficult for some people in the short term. However, he remained firm that disclosing his account was necessary and could finally allow the team to move beyond the controversy.

“If you read my story, if you read what I’m saying, I have numerous times said it’s us, the team. This is the team. It’s not Steve, Davey and Bangers. It’s all of us,” Khawaja said.

“At the end of the day, I still think it’s the right thing to do for particularly those three guys. And I think most of the guys in the team, at some level, will be relieved that we can finally move on.”

Khawaja's revelations have brought renewed attention to the Cape Town ball-tampering scandal, particularly the question of how widely the use of sandpaper was known within the Australian dressing room. His account also challenges the earlier denials made by Mitchell Starc, Pat Cummins, Josh Hazlewood and Nathan Lyon, who issued a joint statement in 2021 rejecting allegations that they knew about the ball being tampered with.

Ramayana, starring Ranbir Kapoor, Yash, Sai Pallavi and Ravi Dubey in pivotal roles, has crossed the Rs 200 crore mark at the worldwide box office within its first two days of release. The film has recorded a worldwide gross collection of Rs 221.05 crore, maintaining a strong opening at the box office.

After opening with Rs 127.50 crore worldwide, the film collected Rs 48.05 crore in India net on its second day across 23,316 shows. According to industry tracker Sacnilk, Ramayana’s total India net collection has reached Rs 112.90 crore, while its worldwide gross collection stands at Rs 221.05 crore.

The Hindi version continued to dominate the film’s second-day collections, contributing Rs 35.50 crore from 19,859 shows. The Kannada version followed with Rs 5.15 crore from 904 shows, while the Telugu version earned Rs 4.75 crore from 1,530 shows. The Tamil version collected Rs 1.50 crore from 577 shows, and the Malayalam version added Rs 1.15 crore from 446 shows.

The Hindi version also recorded a higher overall occupancy for its 3D screenings compared to the 2D format on Day 2. The 3D shows registered an occupancy of 28.46%, while the 2D screenings recorded 23.37%.

Produced by DNEG’s Namit Malhotra, the two-part epic has a combined reported budget of Rs 4,000 crore. The first instalment concludes shortly after Sita’s abduction, known as Sita Haran, and the death of Jatayu. It ends with Ram vowing to find Sita and reunite with her at any cost, setting the stage for the epic battle expected to unfold in the second instalment.

With the Diwali holiday period underway, the film’s box office performance over the festive weekend will be closely watched. Its opening two-day worldwide collection of Rs 221.05 crore marks a significant start, while the coming days will indicate whether Ramayana can sustain its momentum and record further growth in collections.

Sony is bringing back the look of its iconic late-1970s headphones with a modern twist, introducing the MDR-3R, a lightweight wired model featuring fluorescent orange earpads, USB-C connectivity and updated features. The launch also includes a Stranger Things special edition.

The return of retro fashion trends is increasingly influencing the technology and accessories market, particularly in the audio segment. According to a principle known as Laver’s Law, fashion trends follow a cycle in which styles popular two decades ago can become fashionable again, while trends from almost a decade earlier may be considered outdated. A similar pattern has emerged in consumer electronics, with several audio brands recently introducing products that combine vintage designs with modern features.

Sony has now joined this trend by announcing a refreshed version of its iconic MDR-3 dynamic headphones. First introduced in Japan in the late 1970s, the original headphones arrived shortly before Sony announced its first Walkman cassette player.

The new model, called the MDR-3R, retains several distinctive design elements of its predecessor, including fluorescent orange earpads and a minimalist appearance. It also features a similar spring steel headband and weighs approximately 38 grams, making it a couple of grams lighter than the original version.

The audio hardware also maintains a connection with the original model. The MDR-3R uses the same 23mm dynamic drivers, although Sony says it has introduced subtle improvements to make the headphones suitable for modern listening requirements.

However, connectivity is one of the biggest changes. The original MDR-3 featured a 6.35 mm headphone jack, while the new MDR-3R replaces it with a USB-C connector. Instead of adopting a conventional 3.5mm headphone jack or a balanced 4.4mm connection, Sony has opted for USB-C to make the headphones easier to use with modern equipment.

The new headphones also include an in-line microphone and volume controls. The USB-C decision is particularly notable because most modern Sony smartphones continue to retain a 3.5mm headphone jack, a feature that continues to contribute to sales.

Despite the updated connectivity, compatibility could be a concern for some users. The MDR-3R may not work with Sony's modern Hi-Fi media players under the Walkman series. Compatibility with modern Android smartphones could also be limited, as some devices do not support passive USB-C headsets and instead require an in-line digital-to-analog converter (DAC).

Nevertheless, the new headphones offer an option for buyers interested in Sony's vintage audio design. The company has priced the standard MDR-3R at $60.

Sony is also introducing a Stranger Things special edition priced at $80. This version features a black headband with red or black ear cushions. Apart from these cosmetic differences, the special edition is expected to deliver the same audio performance as the standard model.

With the MDR-3R, Sony is bringing back a distinctive design from its late-1970s audio lineup while replacing the original connection with USB-C. The launch reflects the growing presence of retro-inspired designs in modern audio equipment, although device compatibility remains an important consideration for potential buyers.

A man carrying three firearms and dozens of rounds of ammunition was arrested near the White House after allegedly telling officers that voices in his head had instructed him to kill US President Donald Trump, authorities said.

The US Secret Service took the suspect, identified as Ronny Yordrix Guanipa Chrinos, into custody on Thursday night. According to a statement from the Department of Homeland Security (DHS), officers noticed the man behaving suspiciously inside a parked vehicle before taking action.

Authorities said the suspect was found carrying three firearms and dozens of rounds of ammunition. During the encounter, he allegedly told officers that voices in his head had instructed him to kill President Trump.

The White House did not issue a separate statement regarding the incident. Instead, it referred media queries to the Department of Homeland Security and the US Secret Service.

The arrest comes amid a series of security incidents involving threats against Trump and members of his family since he returned to the White House last year. Law enforcement agencies have made several arrests in connection with such threats.

The latest incident has again brought attention to security concerns surrounding the US President, following the arrest of an armed suspect near the White House over an alleged threat to kill Donald Trump.

Notorious gangster Hari Chand Jaat, better known as Harry Boxer, has been detained in the United States at the request of Indian law enforcement agencies, sources said. The development comes as Indian security and intelligence agencies have been closely monitoring his movements following the firing incident outside Bollywood filmmaker Rohit Shetty's residence in Mumbai.

Indian agencies have intensified efforts to bring Boxer back to the country. His detention is being viewed as a significant breakthrough, as he allegedly operated a key overseas module of the Lawrence Bishnoi criminal syndicate.

Boxer, a native of Narayanpur village in Rajasthan, acquired the nickname because of his background as a sports enthusiast and boxing coach in Jaipur. He initially came from a sporting and farming background but later entered the criminal underworld. He has been absconding since 2022 and eventually fled India for the United States.

His latest detention follows an earlier brief detention in January 2026. At the time, Boxer had attempted to apply for asylum and was temporarily held by US immigration authorities before being allowed to leave.

Investigators identify Boxer as a key henchman and an important overseas operative of the Lawrence Bishnoi gang. He is accused of coordinating international extortion networks, issuing threats and facilitating targeted attacks alongside other members of the criminal syndicate.

Operating from North America, Boxer gained prominence for allegedly orchestrating intimidation campaigns against prominent personalities in the Indian entertainment industry.

He was directly linked to the firing incident outside filmmaker Rohit Shetty's residence in Mumbai and reportedly took responsibility for the attack. Following the incident, Boxer circulated threatening social media posts and audio clips targeting Bollywood personalities, warning them of serious consequences.

According to law enforcement records, Boxer faces several serious criminal charges across multiple states. These include cases related to murder, attempted murder, armed assaults and organised extortion.

Indian security and intelligence agencies are now coordinating through further channels to secure the legal proceedings required for his return and ensure accountability. His detention in the United States marks an important development in the investigation into the overseas operations of the Lawrence Bishnoi gang and its alleged involvement in threats and attacks targeting prominent Indian personalities.

Shruthi, who lost nine members of her family and her home in the Chooralmala landslide disaster in Wayanad, began a new chapter in her life on Saturday as she married her colleague Sandeep at the Guruvayur temple in Kerala.

The wedding took place in the presence of close relatives and friends. Sandeep, a native of Mananthavady and an employee at the Wayanad Collectorate, tied the knot with Shruthi. Former minister K Rajan also attended the ceremony.

Speaking to the media after the wedding, Shruthi expressed happiness about the new beginning in her life. "I am very happy at this moment. He held my hand, knowing everything about my past. I pray that we have a happy life ahead," she said.

Shruthi's life has been marked by a series of personal tragedies. She lost nine members of her family, including her parents and sister, when the devastating landslide struck Chooralmala in Wayanad. The disaster also destroyed her home, leaving her to cope with the loss of her family and everything she had.

As she struggled to come to terms with the tragedy, another setback followed. Her fiancé Jenson, who had supported her during the difficult period, died in a road accident. Shruthi was also injured in the accident and sustained injuries to her legs.

Following these events, she faced difficulties in securing a job. She was eventually appointed as a clerk in the Public Grievance Cell (PG Cell) of the Revenue Department at the Wayanad Collectorate. She joined duty in December 2024.

Sandeep, who works at the same Collectorate, has now begun a new journey with Shruthi, knowing about the tragedies she has endured. Their marriage at the Guruvayur temple marks a new chapter in the life of a woman whose journey has been shaped by repeated personal losses.

The ongoing discussion around Nitesh Tiwari's Ramayana has brought renewed attention to the legendary television series Ramayan, directed by Ramanand Sagar. While Ranbir Kapoor plays Lord Ram and Sai Pallavi portrays Goddess Sita in the new film, actress Dipika Chikhlia, who became widely recognised for playing Sita in the 1990s television series, has shared her views on the character's strength, decisions and relevance in modern times.

In a recent interview, Dipika Chikhlia spoke about the personality of Sita and challenged the perception that being quiet or speaking less makes a woman weak. She said Sita always expressed her views firmly and demonstrated strength through her decisions.

Recalling Sita's decision to accompany Lord Ram into exile, Dipika explained that both her father, King Janak, and her father-in-law, King Dasharatha, had advised her to return to her parental home. However, Sita remained firm in her decision and chose to spend 14 years in exile alongside Lord Ram. According to Dipika, Sita never described this decision as a sacrifice because it was her own choice.

Speaking to 'She The People', the actress described Sita as a role model and said, "Sita was a role model. People thought she was not a strong woman because she spoke less. Not speaking much or remaining quiet does not mean that you are not strong. Sita always expressed her opinions firmly. When she decided to accompany Lord Ram into exile, her father, King Janak, and her father-in-law, King Dasharatha, advised her to return to her parental home. However, she stood by her decision and endured 14 years of exile with Lord Ram. She did not even call it a sacrifice because it was her decision."

Dipika further described Sita as the first single mother and said she considered her a strong woman whose character remains relevant even today. She explained that Sita understood everything around her but emphasised that expressing one's views and speaking up for oneself are equally important.

"Sita was the first single mother. That is why I feel she was a strong woman who remains relevant even in today's times. Sita understood everything. However, I believe that sometimes it is also important to express what we think. We must speak up for ourselves too," she said.

The actress also discussed the Agnipariksha episode from Ramanand Sagar's Ramayan and referred to the scene in which Sita finally raised her voice against Lord Ram.

Recalling the moment, Dipika said, "Sita raised her voice when she told Lord Ram that she could no longer live with him. She asked him to take care of their children and said that Mother Earth would embrace her. However, I feel that if Sita had stopped her husband at the right time, things might not have reached that stage. If there had been proper communication between them, I believe the situation would never have reached that point."

Through her remarks, Dipika Chikhlia highlighted Sita's ability to make independent decisions, stand by her choices and speak up when necessary, presenting a perspective on the character that continues to attract discussion alongside the release of the new Ramayana film.

Salman Khan is currently promoting his upcoming war film, ‘Maatrubhumi: May War Rest in Peace’. During a promotional event held recently, the actor and his entire team were present, where several media representatives asked him questions about the film. However, a question about Ranbir Kapoor’s recently released film ‘Ramayana’ caught everyone’s attention after Salman’s response sparked widespread discussion. Videos of the interaction are also going viral on social media.

During the event, media representatives asked Salman about Ranbir Kapoor’s ₹4,000 crore ‘Ramayana’. Responding to the question, the actor shared his views on the film with a smile. Salman said, “There is only one Ramayana. I have only watched Ramanand Sagar’s Ramayana.”

His response indicated that Salman Khan had not watched the recently released ‘Ramayana’. His remark has since become a talking point, with videos of the exchange circulating on social media.

Salman further said that discussions surrounding ‘Ramayana’ should focus on the film itself rather than its VFX expenditure, production budget or other aspects. According to him, discussions about the film’s ₹4,000 crore budget and VFX are meaningless. Instead, the conversation should centre on ‘Ramayana’, Lord Ram, Sita and Ravana.

“Discussions should be about Ramayana, Ram, Sita and Ravana. All this VFX and other stuff is not real,” Salman said.

The actor also drew a comparison between his character in ‘Maatrubhumi’ and Lord Ram. Explaining his role in the war film, he said, “My character in Maatrubhumi is just like Ram. In it, I play the role of the best son, the best husband and the best father.”

Ramanand Sagar’s television series ‘Ramayan’ was originally broadcast on Doordarshan from January 25, 1987, to July 31, 1988. Arun Govil played Lord Ram, Deepika Chikhalia portrayed Mata Sita, Sunil Lahri played Lakshman, Dara Singh appeared as Hanuman, and Arvind Trivedi portrayed Ravana.

Based on Valmiki Ramayana, Ramcharitmanas and other stories about Lord Ram, the series consisted of 78 episodes. It was broadcast again during the COVID-19 pandemic and received tremendous popularity.

Salman’s comments have brought renewed attention to the contrast between the discussions surrounding the ₹4,000 crore ‘Ramayana’ and the legacy of Ramanand Sagar’s television adaptation, which remains the actor’s reference point for the epic.

Karnataka has outlined an ambitious plan to add nearly 30 GW of renewable energy capacity over the next five years, reinforcing its position as a major destination for clean energy investments. The State is presenting its renewable energy potential, progressive policies and investor-friendly infrastructure at the Bharat Renewable Energy Summit & Expo 2026, where it is participating as a State Partner at Bharat Mandapam, New Delhi.

Inviting investors, industry leaders and global renewable energy companies to explore opportunities in Karnataka, Gaurav Gupta, Additional Chief Secretary, Energy Department, Government of Karnataka, said, “Come, invest in Karnataka - a State with a pioneering energy legacy, a progressive renewable energy ecosystem, investor-friendly policies and immense opportunities to power India's clean energy future.”

Gupta highlighted the State's abundant wind and solar resources, investor-friendly policies, automatic land conversion and plug-and-play infrastructure as key factors supporting renewable energy investments. He also referred to pioneering initiatives such as the Pavagada Solar Park, which operates under a unique 30-year land lease agreement with farmers.

Karnataka's renewable energy capacity has increased from 16 GW in 2022 to 23 GW, reflecting the expansion of the sector. The State now envisages adding 5–7 GW of renewable energy capacity annually, with a target of nearly 30 GW over the next five years.

The State also led the country in wind capacity addition during 2024–25, adding 1,331 MW. According to Gupta, this creates significant opportunities for renewable energy developers, technology providers and industry partners to participate in Karnataka's clean energy expansion.

Looking towards 2035, Karnataka's focus extends beyond increasing power generation capacity to developing a flexible, reliable and resilient clean energy ecosystem. Under the State's Resource Adequacy Plan (RAP), Karnataka envisages adding 41.5 GW of new wind and solar capacity and approximately 11,000 MWh of battery energy storage by 2034–35.

The State is already progressing with large-scale solar and energy storage projects. These include a 250 MW solar project with 1,100 MWh of storage at Ryapte, standalone battery storage projects and a significant pipeline of renewable energy projects across KPTCL substations.

Gupta also highlighted initiatives aimed at empowering farmers through PM-KUSUM, promoting green hydrogen and bioenergy, and creating opportunities for innovation, skill development and clean energy entrepreneurship. He said transparent, data-driven project planning, supportive policies and a robust investment ecosystem were strengthening Karnataka's position as a preferred destination for renewable energy development.

Divya Prabhu GRJ, Managing Director, Karnataka Renewable Energy Development Limited (KREDL), said Karnataka's participation as a State Partner at the Bharat Renewable Energy Summit & Expo 2026 reflected the State's commitment to strengthening its position as a leading destination for renewable energy investments.

She said Karnataka has an installed renewable energy capacity of around 27 GW, accounting for nearly 67 per cent of its total installed power capacity. The State combines natural resources, progressive policies, robust infrastructure and a conducive investment ecosystem.

As the nodal agency, KREDL is working to strengthen the renewable energy ecosystem through capacity building, skill development programmes such as Surya Mitra and Vayumitra, technological advancement, incubation centres and industry-academia collaborations. These collaborations include institutions such as the University of New South Wales, IISc and IIMB.

Prabhu also highlighted the importance of transmission infrastructure in supporting renewable energy expansion. KPTCL has identified 27 dedicated substations for renewable energy projects to facilitate transmission connectivity.

A key highlight of Karnataka's participation at the summit was the plenary session titled ‘The Karnataka Advantage in Renewable Energy’. The session showcased the State's wind and solar potential, progressive policies, the Pavagada land-lease model and investor-friendly plug-and-play infrastructure.

Discussions covered investment opportunities in renewable energy, manufacturing, technological innovation, energy storage and industry-academia partnerships. The session also highlighted competitive tariffs, transparent project allocation and robust transmission infrastructure.

Investors, industry leaders and manufacturers participated in the session and appreciated the State's Resource Adequacy Plan and automatic land conversion initiative, described at the event as the first in the country.

Karnataka's representatives also participated in a panel discussion on ‘Repowering Wind Power Turbines’ as part of the summit's deliberations. Gaurav Gupta and Divya Prabhu GRJ joined wind manufacturers and industry leaders to discuss opportunities and challenges associated with repowering ageing wind turbines.

The discussion examined how advanced technologies could improve generation efficiency, optimise existing wind energy sites and unlock additional renewable energy potential.

A separate roundtable brought together industry leaders, renewable energy developers, manufacturers and key stakeholders to discuss Karnataka's future renewable energy roadmap. Participants assessed the effectiveness of existing policies and government support mechanisms in Karnataka and other States, identified areas requiring improvement to achieve the State's clean energy targets, and explored opportunities to position Karnataka as a preferred destination for clean energy deployment and manufacturing.

Industry representatives were also invited to share inputs for the State's forthcoming Renewable Energy Policy, as the current policy approaches its conclusion in May 2027.

The Karnataka Pavilion, established by KREDL, was another major attraction at the summit. Inspired by the architectural grandeur of the iconic Mysore Palace and Karnataka's pioneering electrical legacy, the pavilion presented the State's journey in the power sector.

Karnataka holds a significant place in India's electricity history through the establishment of the Shivanasamudra Hydroelectric Power Project, one of Asia's earliest hydroelectric power stations. Bengaluru also introduced India's first electric street lighting in 1905.

The pavilion provided visitors and investors with information about Karnataka's renewable energy potential, policy initiatives, key projects and investment opportunities.

K.J. George, Minister for Energy and Tourism, Government of Karnataka, said he was delighted with the State's participation as a State Partner at the Bharat Renewable Energy Summit & Expo 2026. He said Karnataka had showcased its rich energy-sector legacy, strong renewable energy potential and progressive policy framework.

George invited investors, industry leaders and global stakeholders to explore the opportunities available in Karnataka's renewable energy sector.

Through its participation in the summit, Karnataka is highlighting its renewable energy expansion plans, investment policies, infrastructure and technological initiatives. Its proposed addition of nearly 30 GW of renewable energy capacity over the next five years, alongside long-term plans for wind, solar and battery storage, forms a central part of the State's clean energy roadmap.

A potentially fatal incident was narrowly averted at Vikhroli railway station in Mumbai after a passenger risked his own life to rescue a young man attempting to die by jumping in front of an approaching local train. The passenger pulled the youth away from the railway tracks moments before the train passed, saving his life. A video capturing the dramatic rescue has gone viral on social media.

According to preliminary information, the young man was standing on the railway tracks on the CSMT-bound side, a short distance from Vikhroli railway station. He was reportedly on the slow line towards Karjat, near Platform No. 1. Passengers standing on the railway platform could clearly see him on the tracks.

The young man was reportedly in a disturbed mental state and appeared determined to end his life by jumping in front of a local train. An approaching local train was only a few metres away, leaving very little time for intervention. Passengers feared that he would be run over by the train.

At that moment, another passenger acted quickly and rushed onto the railway tracks without considering the risk to his own life. He grabbed the young man and pulled him away from the tracks just as the approaching local train passed by. The train crossed the spot within moments of the rescue. Had the young man remained on the tracks, he would have been hit by the train.

However, the situation remained tense even after the initial rescue. The passenger continued holding the young man tightly as he repeatedly attempted to return to the railway tracks. The rescuer wrapped his arm around the youth's neck and restrained him to prevent another attempt.

At one point, the young man managed to break free and again tried to throw himself under the moving train. He even attempted to place his leg beneath the train, apparently trying to get his body pulled under its wheels. The other passenger intervened once again and managed to grab him.

During the struggle, both men fell to the ground. Despite this, the passenger did not let go of the young man and continued restraining him until his life was out of danger.

The incident reportedly took place at around 10 am on Saturday morning at Vikhroli railway station. The dramatic rescue involved a struggle between the two men, as the young man repeatedly attempted to reach the tracks while the other passenger tried to prevent him from doing so.

A video of the entire incident has surfaced on social media and is being widely circulated. The footage shows the passenger rushing towards the young man and pulling him away from the approaching local train. It also captures the subsequent struggle, during which the rescued youth attempts to return to the tracks.

The railway administration has initiated an inquiry into the incident. Railway police are also investigating the matter to establish the circumstances surrounding the incident. The timely intervention of the passenger prevented a potentially fatal accident at the busy suburban railway station.

Maharashtra Public Service Commission (MPSC) aspirants preparing for the Group C examination scheduled for January 2027 have received significant relief, with more than 11,000 additional posts being included in the recruitment process. The total number of vacancies has now reached nearly 16,000, following recommendations from a high-level committee.

The important details were shared by V. Radha, Additional Chief Secretary of Maharashtra and head of the high-level committee, during a telephonic interview with Maharashtra Times. She said the committee had accelerated its work and released an interim report to ensure that candidates do not suffer any loss and receive relief during the recruitment process.

According to the report, an assessment of requirements received from various government departments has resulted in a recommendation to add 11,000 additional vacancies. The report containing details of these posts has been forwarded to the commission. With this addition, the total number of vacancies under the MPSC Group C Combined Preliminary Examination 2026 has increased to approximately 16,000.

The administration is making extensive efforts to fill the maximum possible number of vacant posts. Positive discussions have also taken place with Chief Minister Devendra Fadnavis on the issue. The decision was taken after coordination with all the concerned recruitment agencies.

While preparing the interim report, the committee conducted an in-depth study of competitive examination systems in eight different states across the country. It also examined the examination systems followed by the Union Public Service Commission (UPSC) and the National Testing Agency (NTA).

V. Radha clarified that the report released at present represents only 2 per cent of the committee's complete report. The detailed and final report is scheduled to be submitted in January 2027.

The final report will primarily focus on streamlining and regularising the examination calendar of the commission. It will also examine vacant positions across hundreds of cadres in various state government departments and develop a mechanism to fill these vacancies through competitive examinations.

Meanwhile, Radha was also asked about the demand from candidates to restore the descriptive format of the State Services Main Examination to the earlier objective format. Responding to the issue, she said the committee had prioritised urgent measures related to the Group C examination in view of the immediate requirements of candidates.

The interim report has therefore included immediate provisions such as relaxation in the age limit and an increase in the number of vacancies. She clarified that decisions concerning the examination pattern of the State Services Main Examination, along with other provisions, would be incorporated into the final report.

With more than 11,000 additional vacancies recommended and the total Group C recruitment figure approaching 16,000, the interim report marks an important development for MPSC candidates. The committee's final report, expected in January 2027, will outline further measures concerning examination schedules, recruitment across government departments and the examination system

The Supreme Court has clarified the scope of its March 11, 2026, ruling on the determination of the Other Backward Classes (OBC) creamy layer, stating that parents' salaries alone cannot be used to decide whether a candidate falls under the creamy layer category. The nature and level of positions held by parents must also be considered.

However, the court has made it clear that the ruling will not reopen completed recruitment and selection processes or affect appointments, promotions and seniority lists that have already been finalised. Pending cases will be examined independently on their merits and eligibility.

On Friday, November 6, 2026, the Supreme Court delivered its decision on a miscellaneous application filed by the Central Government, seeking clarification on its March 11, 2026, judgment.

In its earlier ruling, the court had held that the creamy layer status of an OBC candidate cannot be determined solely on the basis of the salary income of their parents. The category of positions held by the parents must also be taken into account while assessing eligibility for reservation benefits. Legal news platform Live Law published detailed information about the clarification.

The Central Government had expressed concerns about the consequences of applying the March judgment retrospectively. It argued that such an interpretation could affect recruitment processes and admissions already completed by the Centre as well as 18 states and Union Territories.

In its November 6 clarification, the Supreme Court stated that the judgment would apply only to the parties before it. It further clarified that seniority already determined and promotions already granted would not be disturbed.

The court also ruled that completed selection processes and appointments cannot be reopened or subjected to fresh decisions on the basis of the March judgment. In other words, recruitment processes that have already concluded will not undergo reconsideration under the ruling.

However, cases that are currently pending before courts or other competent authorities will be considered independently. The concerned courts and authorities will decide these matters on their merits and in accordance with the eligibility of the candidates, while taking into account the legal interpretation laid down by the Supreme Court.

The court also clarified that the ruling would apply to the service allocation of candidates selected through the Civil Services Examination 2025, as the final allocation of services has not yet been completed.

A bench comprising Justice P. S. Narasimha and Justice R. Mahadevan made these observations while disposing of the Central Government's miscellaneous application.

The Supreme Court reiterated that determining whether an OBC candidate belongs to the creamy layer requires more than examining the salary income of their parents. The nature and category of government positions held by the parents must also be considered.

At the same time, the court clarified that its decision would not result in changes to government appointments, promotions or seniority lists that have already been finalised. Completed recruitment processes will not be reopened for fresh examination or reconsideration.

For candidates whose cases remain pending before courts or competent authorities, the relevant institutions will retain the authority to decide the matters independently, subject to the legal principles explained by the Supreme Court.

The court also permitted the Central Government to create additional posts, if necessary, to accommodate candidates who are found eligible in the matter.

It further clarified that all reservation-related selections, appointments and service allocations made after March 11, 2026, must follow the creamy layer criteria explained in its judgment.

However, the authority to formulate a new policy concerning reservation and the creamy layer will remain with the government. The Supreme Court did not prescribe any deadline for the government to establish a new policy or determine how different categories of posts should be compared for creamy layer assessment.

The court observed that these matters fall within the domain of the government and the legislature.

The clarification is particularly relevant to the Civil Services Examination 2025. Although the examination results have been declared, the final allocation of services to successful candidates is still pending. Consequently, the Supreme Court's interpretation of the OBC creamy layer criteria will apply while allocating services to the 2025 batch.

What Is the OBC Creamy Layer and When Was It Introduced?

The creamy layer refers to the relatively affluent and educated section within the Other Backward Classes (OBC) category. People falling under this category are not eligible for reservation benefits in government jobs and educational institutions. The provision was introduced to ensure that reservation benefits reach genuinely disadvantaged sections of the OBC community.

The concept of the creamy layer emerged following the Supreme Court's 1992 judgment in the Indra Sawhney case, also known as the Mandal Commission case.

In its judgment, the court ruled that the advanced sections among OBCs should not claim the benefits of reservation, ensuring that these benefits reach those who genuinely need them.

Under the existing criteria, families with an annual income exceeding Rs 8 lakh are considered part of the creamy layer. The government revises this income threshold from time to time.

Apart from the income criteria, children of senior officers holding higher positions in Group A and Group B services are also included in the creamy layer category. Children of professionals with substantial incomes, including doctors, engineers and lawyers, are also considered part of this category. Families owning large areas of agricultural land are also covered under the creamy layer criteria.

Members of the creamy layer are not eligible for reservation benefits available to OBC candidates in government employment and educational institutions.

At present, the creamy layer concept does not apply to Scheduled Castes (SCs) and Scheduled Tribes (STs). Members of these communities are eligible for reservation benefits without being classified under the OBC creamy layer framework. However, following the Supreme Court's latest landmark ruling, the possibility of changes in this area has also emerged.

Democratic lawmakers are preparing to investigate people close to US President Donald Trump, cryptocurrency investments, Elon Musk and influential technology industry figures following the Republican Party's setback in the US midterm elections. The proposed investigations could also bring attention to cryptocurrency dealings with Pakistan, potentially putting Trump's son-in-law, Jared Kushner, under scrutiny.

The Republican Party's electoral defeat has prompted Democratic lawmakers to begin preparations for investigations into individuals and businesses with close ties to Trump. The proposed scrutiny is expected to extend to Trump's associates, major cryptocurrency investments, Elon Musk and prominent figures from the technology sector. The cryptocurrency dealings involving Pakistan have also emerged as an issue in the discussions.

Trump has repeatedly claimed that CEOs from Silicon Valley and executives of major companies seek to strengthen their relationships with him. However, following the election results, these companies and individuals close to the US president could face increased scrutiny. Senior Republican leaders have also suffered a setback in the elections.

Pakistan's cryptocurrency dealings with people close to Trump could become a subject of investigation. Trump's son-in-law, Jared Kushner, could face difficulties over the cryptocurrency transactions involving Pakistan. The scrutiny could also extend to others who have maintained business dealings with Trump.

Trump has made significant investments in Pakistan, while his son-in-law has visited the country several times. Trump has also made substantial investments in cryptocurrency in Pakistan. The country had opened its entire market to Trump, allowing business dealings linked to him to expand.

However, the Republican Party's defeat in the midterm elections has increased the political challenges facing Trump and his close associates. Trump has said that the party lost because he was not on the ballot in these elections.

The war involving Iran has also proved costly for Trump politically. The proposed investigations into people associated with him could further increase pressure on his administration and business network. His decisions to impose sanctions on several countries, including India, have also been cited as factors that appear to have affected the political situation.

With Democratic lawmakers preparing to examine the business interests and financial dealings of Trump's close associates, the cryptocurrency connection with Pakistan could become an important part of the investigations. The developments could have implications not only for Trump's inner circle but also for Pakistan's dealings with them.

India captain Shubman Gill made an unexpected fielding error during the second ODI against New Zealand in Wellington, dropping a straightforward catch that left wicketkeeper KL Rahul and the other Indian players stunned. The incident took place during New Zealand's innings, and a video of the dropped catch is rapidly circulating on social media.

The incident occurred in the 17th over of New Zealand's innings. Daryl Mitchell was batting well when he attempted to play a big shot towards the on side off a back-of-a-length delivery from Anshul Kamboj. However, the ball struck the upper part of his bat and went high towards the cover region.

After playing the shot, Mitchell appeared to believe he was out and even began walking back towards the pavilion. Shubman Gill, who was positioned to take the catch, had sufficient time to get underneath the ball. The Indian captain attempted to complete the catch with both hands but failed to hold on to the straightforward opportunity.

Gill's unexpected drop left KL Rahul and the other Indian players stunned. Rahul, standing behind the stumps, appeared particularly surprised by the incident, with his reaction also drawing attention.

Despite the missed opportunity, India's bowlers continued to make an impact on the Wellington pitch. In the 20th over, young bowler Gurnoor Brar struck twice to put New Zealand under further pressure. He first dismissed Tom Latham, who scored 7 runs, with Naman Dhir completing the catch. On the final delivery of the same over, Brar removed the dangerous Glenn Phillips, who was dismissed for a duck after being caught by Anshul Kamboj.

At the end of 20 overs, New Zealand were struggling at 53/5. Daryl Mitchell and Mitchell Santner then attempted to stabilise the innings and rebuild the partnership. Santner scored 31 runs off 38 balls before being dismissed.

Gill's dropped catch became a talking point during the contest, even as India's bowlers continued to put pressure on the New Zealand batting line-up with regular breakthroughs.

Indian women’s cricket team spinner Vaishnavi Sharma produced a remarkable bowling performance in the 2026 Women’s T20 Trophy, taking four wickets in four consecutive deliveries to complete a double hat-trick. She became only the second Indian woman to achieve this feat after Humaira Kazi.

Vaishnavi is currently representing Madhya Pradesh in the tournament. The historic performance came during the match between Madhya Pradesh and Andhra, played in New Chandigarh on Friday, November 6, 2026.

Batting first, Andhra scored 129 runs for the loss of eight wickets in 20 overs. Vaishnavi was the standout bowler for Madhya Pradesh, claiming six wickets, including the double hat-trick.

The Indian spinner achieved the feat in the final over of Andhra’s innings. She dismissed Henrietta Pereira on the third delivery of the 20th over, followed by Anjali Sarvani on the fourth ball. Akhila Pavani became her third consecutive victim on the fifth delivery, while Shabnam Shakil was dismissed off the final ball of the over.

With four wickets from four consecutive deliveries, Vaishnavi completed her double hat-trick. She finished her four-over spell with figures of 22 runs and six wickets, maintaining an economy rate of 5.50.

Vaishnavi Sharma has already represented India in white-ball cricket. She has played three One Day Internationals and five T20 Internationals. In her three ODI innings, she has taken nine wickets, while she has claimed five wickets in five T20I innings. Her economy rate in the shortest format stands at 6.26.

Madhya Pradesh also secured a comprehensive victory in the match, chasing down Andhra’s target of 130 runs in just 15.1 overs. The team finished at 133 for the loss of one wicket.

For Andhra, Henrietta Pereira top-scored with 59 runs. No other batter managed to reach the 25-run mark.

In response, Madhya Pradesh's opening batter Anushka Sharma delivered an unbeaten 81 off 53 balls, hitting five fours and six sixes. Her opening partner, Ayushi Shukla, contributed 37 runs from 29 deliveries, including two fours and two sixes.

Madhya Pradesh completed the chase with nine wickets in hand, capping a match in which Vaishnavi Sharma's six-wicket haul and four consecutive dismissals stood out as the defining bowling performance.

Auqib Nabi has finally opened his international wicket account, claiming his maiden international wicket during the second ODI between India and New Zealand. The 30-year-old pacer, who made his debut during the ODI series against West Indies, dismissed two New Zealand batters after missing out on wickets in his first two appearances due to dropped catches.

Nabi had come close to taking his first international wicket on the final delivery of his debut match, but Kuldeep Yadav dropped a straightforward catch. He was denied another opportunity in the following match when Naman Dhir dropped a catch off his bowling. However, the wait ended in the second ODI against New Zealand.

Auqib Nabi Dismisses Tim Seifert

Nabi's first international wicket came in the second over of India's innings, when New Zealand wicketkeeper-batter Tim Seifert played the ball towards mid-off. Anshul Kamboj moved forward and took an excellent diving catch, sending Seifert back to the pavilion without scoring.

Interestingly, Seifert was also the batter whose catch Naman Dhir had dropped off Nabi's bowling in the first ODI. Seifert is playing in New Zealand's playing XI in place of Devon Conway, who was ruled out of the India ODI series.

Will Young Also Falls to Nabi's Bowling

The 30-year-old pacer continued his impressive spell with the new ball and dismissed New Zealand's other opening batter, Will Young.

During his third over, Nabi conceded a boundary on the second delivery but bounced back on the fourth ball to claim Young's wicket. The delivery outside the off stump took an edge and travelled behind the wicket. KL Rahul dived to his right and completed an excellent catch.

Young scored seven runs off 17 deliveries before departing, giving Nabi his second wicket of the innings.

Second ODI Reduced to 47 Overs per Side

The second ODI between India and New Zealand is being played over 47 overs per side due to rain in Wellington. The ground was wet, delaying the start of the match by an hour.

The match was originally scheduled to begin at 7:30 AM Indian Standard Time, but the first ball was bowled at 8:30 AM. The toss, initially scheduled for 7 AM, eventually took place at 8:05 AM.

After missing out on wickets in his first two matches, Nabi finally registered his maiden international wicket against New Zealand. He went on to dismiss both opening batters, Tim Seifert and Will Young, making his contribution significant in the early stages of the second ODI.